CanucKev
06-08-2004, 10:47 PM
Hey, I've just got a few questions I've always wondered about:
1. Why do AA guns hit on only a 1/6 chance - were they really that bad in WWII? Also, why is it that even if there are 5 AA guns in a territory, only one of them fires? It seems to me that if there are more AA guns, there'd be a better chance of shooting down planes.
2. Why can't Chinese infantry load onto transports?
3. Why is it that only the USA can build new industrial complexes?
4. Why is a damaged battleship uprighted at the end of each turn, and not after one round? My reasoning is this: if a combined fleet of British and US ships attacked a Japanese battleship, and the british only hit the Japanese battleship once, the Americans would then have to hit the battleship twice to sink it (essentially making it a three-hit battleship). But if all attacking ships fired at the "same time", it would only take two hits - which seems to make more sense.
5. This isn't a "why" question, but in an amphibious assualt from a sea zone with CAP, does engaging the CAP with ships count as a naval battle, so that battleships/destroyers can't fire a support shot?
Any insight would be great. Thanks in advance.
1. Why do AA guns hit on only a 1/6 chance - were they really that bad in WWII? Also, why is it that even if there are 5 AA guns in a territory, only one of them fires? It seems to me that if there are more AA guns, there'd be a better chance of shooting down planes.
2. Why can't Chinese infantry load onto transports?
3. Why is it that only the USA can build new industrial complexes?
4. Why is a damaged battleship uprighted at the end of each turn, and not after one round? My reasoning is this: if a combined fleet of British and US ships attacked a Japanese battleship, and the british only hit the Japanese battleship once, the Americans would then have to hit the battleship twice to sink it (essentially making it a three-hit battleship). But if all attacking ships fired at the "same time", it would only take two hits - which seems to make more sense.
5. This isn't a "why" question, but in an amphibious assualt from a sea zone with CAP, does engaging the CAP with ships count as a naval battle, so that battleships/destroyers can't fire a support shot?
Any insight would be great. Thanks in advance.